Biology test final

Welcome to your Biology final

137. A pair of homologous chromosomes is presented in the figure. During meiosis crossing over occurs and random segregation takes place. What genotypes are produced?

A) ABG, ABG, abg, abg

(B) ABG, ABg, abG, abg

(C) ABG, Abg, aBG, abg

(D) ABG, aBg, Abg, abg

138. The mutation which will NOT affect the length of a protein

(A) nonsense mutation

(B) frameshift mutation

(C) missense mutation

(D) all of these

139. Skin color inheritance in man is an example of

(A) pleiotropy

(B) monogenic inheritance

(C) polygenic inheritance

(D) epistasis

140. Blood type O

(A) contains antigens A and B on the erythrocytes (

(B) contains antibodies A and B on the erythrocytes

(C) contains no antigens of system AB0 on the erythrocytes

(D) contains no antibodies α and β in the serum

141. Proteins

(A) are composed of 40 different types of amino acids

(B) are composed of amino acids bound together by peptide bonds

(C) are composed of amino acids bound together by phosphate bonds

(D) contain C, H, O, and N atoms

142. The cardiovascular system is derived from

(A) mesoderm

(B) endoderm

(C) ectoderm

(D) neuroectoderm

143. Which one is NOT a long bone?

(A) tibia

(B) femur

(C) sternum

(D) radius

144. Which one of the following statements concerning mammalian red blood cells is false?

(A) they are spherical in shape

(B) they lack a nucleus when mature

(C) they contain hemoglobin

(D) they are destroyed by the liver and spleen

145. Vasopressin is synthesized in the hypothalamus. Where is it store?

(A) pineal gland

(B) posterior pituitary

(C) pancreas

(D) adrenal cortex

146. In the pulmonary circuit, the (1) half of the heart pumps (2) blood to the alveoli of the lungs, and then (3) blood flows back to the heart.

(A) 1-left; 2-deoxygenated; 3-oxygenated

(B) 1-left; 2-oxygenated; 3-deoxygenated

(C) 1-right; 2-deoxygenated; 3-oxygenated

(D) 1-right; 2-oxygenated; 3-deoxygenated

147. Which one best describes pancreas:

Correct answers to this question could be A and C

(A) an organ that completes the chemical digestion of food and absorbs nutrients

(B) an enlarged and muscular saclike organ of the alimentary canal that contributes in digestion

(C) a gland that secretes digestive juice into the duodenum, where it mixes with bile to digest food

(D) a section of the digestive system, where water is absorbed from food and the remaining material is eliminated from the body

148. Identify urinary bladder in this diagram

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

149. Which organ or tissue is not an integral part of the immune system?

(A) pancreas

(B) thymus

(C) spleen

(D) bone marrow

150. Which blood cells do not have a nucleus?

(A) platelets

(B) T-Lymphocytes

(C) B-Lymphocytes

(D) phagocytes

151. Translation undergoes the following stages

(A) initiation and termination of the polypeptide chain

(B) initiation and elongation of the polypeptide chain

(C) initiation and elongation of the polynucleotide chain

(D) initiation, elongation and termination of the polypeptide chain

152. Regions of active gene transcription are found in:

(A) Lampbrush chromosomes

(B) heterochromatin regions

(C) Barr bodies

(D) polyribosomes

153. To an ecologist, an “Interbreeding group of individuals that occupies a specific geographic area” is a (an)

(A) population

(B) species

(C) gene pool

(D) ecosystem

154. When two kinds of organisms both use a resource that is in short supply, the usual end result is that

(A) both species modify their needs and use some substitute

(B) both species survive as long as possible, and then die out

(C) one species will win out and eliminate the other

(D) the amount of the resource expands to fill the need

155. Cellular respiration occurs in

(A) ribosome

(B) nucleus

(C) rough endoplasmic reticulum

(D) mitochondria

156. Which event occurs in meiosis but NOT in mitosis?

(A) chromosome condensation

(B) crossing over

(C) chromosome movement to poles

(D) chromatid separation

157. Thirty percent (30%) of the nucleotide bases in a DNA molecule are adenine (A). What is the percentage of guanine (G) bases in this DNA molecule?

(A) 20%

(B) 30%

(C) 40%

(D) 70%

158. The following diagram illustrates a change in a chromosome. It is an example for

(A) chromosomal deletion

(B) chromosomal inversion

(C) gene mutation

(D) genomic mutation

159. Because the gene for hemophilia is located on the X-chromosome, it is normally impossible for a

(A) carrier mother to pass the gene to her son

(B) hemophiliac father to pass the gene on to his son

(C) hemophiliac father to pass the gene to his daughter

(D) carrier mother to pass the gene to her daughter

160. Primary protein structur

(A) is determined by the type of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain

(B) is determined by the folding of the polypeptide chain in the space t

(C) is determined by the number, type and arrangement of amino acids in the polypeptide chain

(D) can be a spiral or beta shee

161. Enzymes are

(A) proteins

(B) carbohydrates (

(C) carbohydrates and proteins

(D) inorganic compounds

162. During which phase of mitosis chromosomes become visible?

(A) interphase

(B) metaphase

(C) telophase

(D) prophase

163. Phenotype

(A) is represented by two alleles

(B) determines the genotype

(C) is a result of gene expression and influence of the environment

(D) is the set of 46 chromosomes in human

164. As a result of silent mutation

(A) the protein that is to be produced is not changed

(B) a chromosome disappears

(C) a stop codon appears

(D) the DNA sequence is not changed

165. The nucleic acid which contains deoxyribose, phosphoric acid and nitrogen bases A, T and C is

(A) RNA

(B) DNA

(C) viral RNA

(D) bacterial RNA

166. During meiosis, pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs, which permits large segments of DNA to be exchanged. What is this process called?

(A) synapsis

(B) nondisjunction

(C) crossing over 7. DNA replication occurs in which phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle?

(D) disjunction

167. DNA replication occurs in which phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle?

(A) M phase

(B) S phase

(C) Go phase

(D) prophase

168. What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

(A) it controls the cell’s activities and stores its DNA.

(B) it sorts and packages proteins made in the endoplasmic reticulum

(C) it is the site of protein synthesis.

(D) it synthesizes lipids and transports synthesized proteins.

169. Stages of meiotic prophase I occur in following order

(A) zygotene, Leptotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis

(B) pachytene, Leptotene, Zygotene, Diplotene, Diakinesis

(C) diplotene, Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diakinesis

(D) leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis

170. All of the following are true EXCEPT

(A) a dominant allele produces a dominant phenotype in individuals who have one copy of the allele

(B) a recessive allele produces a recessive phenotype in individuals who have two copies of the allele

(C) a dominant allele produces a dominant phenotype in individuals who have two copies of the allele

(D) a recessive allele produces a recessive phenotype in individuals who have one copy of the allele

171. In the DNA molecule

(A) there are two strands that run parallel in 5’3’ direction

(B) the total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal

(C) there are two strands that run antiparallel to each other

(D) the proportion of cytosine in relation to guanine varies with the organism

172. A child is born with Down syndrome and an extra chromosome 21 is found in each of its cells. This condition is usually the result of

(A) hybridization

(B) nondisjunction

(C) deletion

(D) crossing-over

173. The following diagram illustrates a change in a chromosome. It is an example for

(A) inversion

(B) duplication

(C) trisomy

(D) monosomy

174. Which one is NOT a correct match

(A) deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5 – chromosomal mutation

(B) deletion of 16 bases in exon 2 of HBB gene (coding for human beta-globine) – genome mutation

(C) trisomy of chromosome 21 – genome mutation

(D) deletion of 16 bases in exon 2 of HBB gene (coding for human beta globine) – gene mutation

175. Chromosomal complement of a normal mature human oocyte is

(A) 44 autosomes + XX

(B) 44 autosomes + X

(C) 23 autosomes + X

(D) 23 autosomes + XX

176. Which organ in adult human originates from embryonic ectoderm?

(A) muscles

(B) heart

(C) bone marrow

(D) brain

177. Population is

(A) a group of individuals of different species which inhabit part of the species area for a continuous period of time, interbreed freely and produce fertile offspring

(B) a group of individuals of one species which inhabit part of the species area for a continuous period of time, interbreed freely and produce fertile offspring

(C) a group of individuals of one species which inhabit part of the species area for a short period of time, interbreed freely and produce fertile offspring

(D) a group of individuals of different species which inhabit part of the species area for a short period of time, interbreed freely and produce fertile offspring

178. Mitochondria

(A) are small oval one membrane bodies that participate in protein synthesis

(B) are small oval two membrane bodies that participate in protein synthesis

(C) are small oval two membrane bodies that provide cell with energy

(D) are small particles composed of rRNA and proteins that provide cell with energy

179. Karyotype is

(A) the number, shape and size of compact chromosomes in somatic cells of all the individuals in a species

(B) the same in all the living organisms

(C) normally is different in all the individuals in a species

(D) the number and size of compact chromosomes in somatic cells of all the individuals in a species

180. An individual with two identical alleles of a certain gene is

(A) homozygous

(B) heterozygous

(C) homologous

(D) heterohomologous

181. Nondisjunction during the second meiotic division will result in which of the following gametes?

(A) all monosomic gametes

(B) all trisomic gametes

(C) all haploid gametes

(D) two haploid gametes, one diploid gamete, and one missing a copy of one of the chromosomes

182. In Meiosis which of the following occurs?

(A) a haploit cell gives rise to two haploit cells

(B) a diploit cell gives rise to four haploit cells

(C) a diploit cell gives rise to two diploit cells

(D) haploit cell gives rise to four haploit cells

183. Down syndrom results from

(A) the absence of a chromosome in position 21

(B) the presence of an extra chromosome in position 21

(C) the absence of both chromosomes in position 21

(D) crossing-over of the chromosomes in position 21

184. A child is born with Down syndrom and an extra chromosome 21 is found in each of its cells. This condition is usually the result of

(A) Hybridization

(B) Nondisjunction

(C) Deletion

(D) Crossing-over

185. A nonsense mutation

(A) Causes one animo acid to be substituted for another in a polypeptite chain

(B) Results in the deletion of one of more bases, leading for a shift in the reading frame

(C) Results in the formation of one or more baes, leading to a shift in the reading frame

(D) Results in the formation of an abnormally short polypeptidechain because of premature stop-codon is introducerd

186. Postembrionic development consists of

(A) Three statges of growth and development, of adult individualand of old age

(B) Three stages of growth and development of birth and of adult individual

(C) Two stages of growth and development and of adult individual

(D) Of four stages of birt, of growth and development, af individual and of old age

187. Which of the following is not a flat bone?

(A) Rib

(B) Frontal bone

(C) Scapula

(D) Vertebra

188. What is the purpose of the trachea's cartilagenous rings?

(A) Support the trachea and keep it from collapsing or over expandinhg

(B) Push air along the length of the trached by peristalsis

(C) Give the trachea flexibility to allow passage food through the esophagus

(D) A and C

189. Changes in the nucleotide sequence of DNA which are't passed to offsprings occur in

(A) Eggs and sperm cells

(B) Non-sexual cells

(C) Diploid and haploit cells

(D) All of the above

190. Which is not correct:

(A) an antigen is each foreign substance to an organism that provokes the formation of antibodies

(B) An antigen is a molecule secreted by the lymphocytas against foreign antibodies

(C) Some antigens can be part of the host organism itself

(D) Antigents are called the microorganisms or molecules which are foreign to the body, and cause immune reactions

191. Which of the following is the structural unit of the nervous system

(A) Axon

(B) Nephron

(C) Neuron

(D) Cyton

192. In spermatogenesis the phase of maturation involves:

(A) Division of germ cells through mitosis

(B) Formation of germ through meiosis

(C) Formation of sperm calles through meiosis

(D) None of the above

193. Which of the following is true?

(A) Mature red blood cells do not contain a nucleus

(B) Red blood cells contain hemoglobin which binds to oxygen

(C) Red blood cells transport oxygen

(D) All of the above

194. The function of miosis in intestinal jusices is to:

(A) Break down all components of chyme

(B) protect the intestinal lining

(C) Emulsify fats

(D) Dissolve carbohydrates for absorption

195. Which is not correct? The cell cycle:

(A) Is called the sequence of cell groth

(B) Is the same for all the animal cells

(C) Coincides with the division cycle when the cell, once formed, goes through preparation for new division

(D) Some specialized in a certain function cells do not devide

196. Each chromosome consists of two identical:

(A) Nuclei

(B) Genes

(C) Chromatides

(D) Bases

197. In the kidney, the correct sequence of formation of urine involves the following processes:

(A) Glomerular filtration, reabsorption, tabular secretion

(B) Reabsorptionglomerular filtration, tabular secretion

(C) Glomerular filtration, tubular secretion, reabsorption

(D) Reabsorption, tubular secretion, glomerular filtration

198. A radioactive marker was applied to the mesoderm of mammalism embiryo. Which tissues or organs would have this marker in the adult:

(A) Bones and muscles

(B) Muscles and skin

(C) Spine and brain

(D) Skin and intestines

199. Pancreatic islets consists of alpha, beta, and delta cells, which secrete glucagon, insulin, and somiatosiatin, respectively. These cells are derived from:

(A) mesoderm

(B) endoderm

(C) ectoderm

(D) neuroectoderm

200. The cardiovascular system is derived from:

(A) mesoderm

(B) endoderm

(C) ectoderm

(D) neuroectoderm

201. All of the following actions occur in mitosis except:

(A) cytokinesis

(B) DNA replication

(C) DNA replication

(D) the nuclear memebrane and nucleus disapear

202. Cerlls that secrete product into the extracellular matrix, influencing other nearby cells without the product entering the circulation, are called

(A) exocrine cells

(B) endocrine cells

(C) paracrine cells

(D) neurocrine cells

203. The codon:

(A) is a tripolet located within a molecular of tRNA

(B) is a triplet located within a molecular of mRNA

(C) is a regulative element

(D) is incorporated in the inner membrane of the mitochondria

204. The codon:

(A) is a triplet located within a molecular DNA

(B) is a triplet located within a molecular tRNA

(C) complementary connects to a part of tRNA

(D) is a regukative element

205. Translation is a process of the biosynthesis of:

(A) DNA

(B) RNA

(C) proteins

(D) nucleic acids

206. The monomers of proteins are:

(A) animo acds

(B) nucleotides

(C) nitrogen bases

(D) monosaccharides

207. A 28-year-old woman labor is rushed to the hospital by her husband. It is quickly detrermined, she has a 3-year-old child who is Rh positive, and the father is Rh positive. The infant is most likely at risk for developing of:

(A) drug-induced hemolytic anemia

(B) an autoimmune desease

(C) ABO incompatibility

(D) Rh hemolytic desease of the newborn

208. A 28-year-old woman labor is rushed to the hospital by her husband. It is quickly detrermined, she has a 3-year-old child who is Rh positive, and the father is Rh positive. Which of the following agents will most likely protect the baby from developing the disease?

(A) Rh-positive erythrocytes

(B) albumin from Rh-positive donors

(C) a transfusion of platelets

(D) anti-Rh entibody (Rh immunoglobulin)

209. As a result of meiosis the danghter cells (sperms of egs) carry:

(A) haploid chromosome number (n)

(B) tetraploid chromosome number (4n)

(C) diploid chromosome number (2n)

(D) monosomic chromosome number (n-1)

210. The mRNA codons are translated into an animo acid sequence by:

(A) tRNA

(B) rRNA

(C) enzymes

(D) DNA

211. Both DNA and RNA

(A) are polymers of animo acids

(B) are single-stranded molecules

(C) contain the same four nucleotide bases

contain phosphsate groups

212. Which one of the following blood vessels carries deoxygenate blood in mammals?

(A) aoria

(B) pulmonary artery

(C) pulmonary vein

(D) coronary artery

213. Glucoeorticoids are produced by the:

(A) thyroid

(B) pituitary

(C) adrenal cortex

(D) pancreas

214. Synapsis occurs during:

(A) telophase I of meiosis

(B) anaphase I of meiosis

(C) prophase I of meiosis

(D) anaphase of mitosis

215. Monosomy is:

(A) Down syndrom

(B) chromosomal mutation

(C) if 1 chromosome from the diploid set is lost

(D) if 1 chromosome from the diploid set is added

216. The xpression "Rh negative" refers to:

(A) a blood type

(B) rheumatic fever

(C) lymph circulation

(D) blood pressure

217. Codons are:

(A) mucleotide triplets

(B) group of four nucleotides

(C) group of two nucleotides

(D) polypeptide triplets

218. Vasopressin is synthesized in the hypothalamus. Where is it stored?

(A) pineal gland

(B) posterior pituitary

(C) pancreas

(D) adrenal cortex

219. The prostate gland plays a major role in the production of:

(A) seminal fluid

(B) testosterone

(C) urine

amniotic fluid

220. Which of the following hormones stimulates the maturation of reproductive structures in both male and female hummans?

(A) estrogen

(B) follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

(C) progesterone

(D) testosterone

221. The rate of the human heartbeat is controlled by which of the following?

(A) peripheral nervous system

(B) autonomic nervous system

(C) synaptic vesicles

(D) resting potentials

222. Which of the following occurs in the first divisional sequence of meiosis

(A) diploid daughet cells are produced

(B) single-chromatides move to the poles

(C) centromeres divide

(D) homologous chromosomes synapse

223. At what stage of cell division does synapsis occur?

(A) anaphase of mitosis and meiosis

(B) prophase of mitosis and meiosis

(C) metaphase of mitosis and meiosis

(D) prophase of the first meiotic division

224. In an emergency, a person with blood type AB could receive blood from persons with blood type:

(A) A

(B) B

(C) O

(D) all of the above

225. Pleiotropism describes:

(A) a singe genehaving multiople effects

(B) gene interaction of multiple alleles

(C) a single trait being influenced by swvwral genes

(D) polygenic inheritance

226. The direction of transfer of genetic information in most living things is:

(A) protein ->DNA->mRNA

(B) DNA -> mRNA ->protein

(C) DNA -> tRNA -> protein

(D) protein _> tRNA -> DNA

227. The ecosystem consists of:

(A) the combination of all living organisms in a certain area

(B) the dominating species in the community

(C) the community and the biotope

(D) the abiotic components of the environment

228. The nervous system is derived from:

(A) endoderm

(B) mesoderm

(C) ectoderm

(D) all of the above

229. All of the following proceses occur in the eukaryotic cell nucleus except:

(A) transcription

(B) translation

(C) DNA replication

(D) capping of messenger RNA (mRNA)

230. In the formation of the double spiral of DNA which bonds to which:

(A) adenine to thymine

(B) adenine to uracil

(C) adenine to uanine

(D) adenine to cytosine

231. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

(A) The primary urine is produced by filtration in the glomeruli of the kidneys

(B) Urea, uric acid and creatinine are excreted through the urine formed in the kidneys

(C) Kidneys possess endocrine function and produce several important hormones

(D) Urea, uric acid and creatinine are actively reabsorbed in the tubules of the kidney

232. The cells of the cardiac conduction system have the ability to create their ownaction potentials, this is known as:

(A) Spontaneity

(B) Reflexivity

(C) Mechanicity

(D) Automaticity

231. A nephron is a tiny structure in the kidneys that:

(A) Produces urine

(B) Stimulates the pituitary gland

(C) Filters blood

(D) Moves urine

232. The following body functions are regulated by glands in the endocrine system, except:

(A) Urine production

(B) Sexual development and function

(C) Metabolism and growth

(D) Immune responses

233. Substances that recognize the antigens on forein microbes and act as tags that identify the invaders are called:

(A) Hormones

(B) Antibodies

(C) Antibiotics

(D) Interferons

234. Which of the following about plasma membrane is not true?

(A) it is made of lipid molecules

(B) it protects the cell's cytoplasm

(C) it contains proteins

(D) it contains most of a cell's DNA

235. A relationship between A and B alleles for the synthesis of antigens from ABO blood group is:

(A) Epistasis

(B) Pleiotropy

(C) Codominance

(D) Incoplete dominance

236. Which of the following best describes the flow of information in eukaryotic cells?

(A) Proteins -->RNA-->DNA

(B) DNA-->RNA-->proteins

(C) RNA-->proteins-->DNA

(D) Proteins-->DNA-->RNA

237. Which of the following store and transmit hereditary information?

(A) Carbohydrates

(B) Lipids

(C) Proteins

(D) Nucleic acids

238: All of the following statemnts are false Except:

(A) DNA is composed from: phosphate group, four nitrogen bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

(B) RNA is composed from: deoxyribose, phosphate group, four nitrogen bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

(C) RNA is composed from: deoxyribose, phosphate group, four nitrogen bases: adenine, quanine, cytosine, uracil

(D) DNA is composed from: deoxyribose, phosphate group, four nitrogen bases: adenine, quanine, cytosine, uracil

239. A codon is:

(A) Group of three nucleotides in mRNA (messanger RNA)

(B) Group of three nucleodides in rRNA (ribosomal RNA)

(C) Group of three nucleotides in tRNA ( transfer RNA)

(D) Group of four nucleotides in mRNA (messenger RNA)

240. In the cell cycle, which phase follows the S phase, or DNA replication?

(A) Mitosis

(B) Cytokenesis

(C) G2 phase, or protein synthesis

(D) Meiosis

241. Which blood types can be found in children whose both parents have O blood groups?

(A) A

(B) O

(C) AB

(D) B

242. What are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called?

(A) Introns

(B) Exons

(C) Codons

(D) Replicons

243. All of the following statements are false EXCEPT:

(A) DNA is composed from: ribose, phosphate group, four nitrogen bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

(B) RNA is composed from: ribose, phosphate group, four nitrogen bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

(C) RNA is composed from: ribose, phosphate group, four nitrogen bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil

(D) DNA is composed from: ribose, phosphate group, four nitrogen bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil

245. Which of the following statements is not true

(A) Gametes (sperms and eggs) are formed by meiosis

(B) When an egg and sperm fuse, the newly formed cell (zygote) has the full number of chromosomes and is deploid

(C) When an egg and sperm fuse, the newly formed cell (zygote) has the full number of chromosomes and is haploid

(D) As a result of meiosis, gametes receive only half the number of parental chromosomes

246. The primary role of a lysosome is:

(A) ATP Synthesis

(B) Intracellular digestion

(C) Lipid transport

(D) Carbohydrate storage

247. Ribosomes:

(A) are membrane -bound organelles

(B) participate in protein synthesis

(C) participate in the symthesis of steroid hormones

(D) are double-membrane-bound organelles

248. Which of the following molecules contain animo acids?

(1) pepsin (2) vitamin D
(3) starch (4) antibodies

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 1 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

249. Hypothalamus controls:

(1) body temperature (2) heart rate
(3) sleep (4) muscle action

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

250. The diagram below is the human heart. The chamber labelled 3 is:

(A) left artium

(B) right artium

(C) left ventricle

(D) right ventricle

251. The ability of the human body to regulate the level of blood glucose is an example of:

(A) homeostasis

(B) blood circulation

(C) osmosis

(D) aerobic circulation

252. The tissue that senses stimuli and transmits electrical signals to the brain and other parts of the body is known as:

(A) epithilial tissue

(B) nervous tissue

(C) muscle tissue

(D) adipose tissue

253. Which of the following structures is/are involved in gas exchange in a developing fetus?

(A) alyoli

(B) lungs

(C) placenta

(D) tracheal system

254. Which of the following organs is located beneath the diaphragm in the right upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity.

(A) appendix

(B) kidney

(C) stomach

(D) liver

255. In the lungs, gas exchange occurs in tiny one-celled air sacs called:

(A) bronchioles

(B) bronchi

(C) alveoli

(D) trachea

256. Female hormones are produced by which of the following?

(A) vagina

(B) uterus

(C) fallopian tube

(D) ovary

257. Endocrine glands:

(A) secrete vitamins

(B) secrete their products into the blood

(C) begin functionning in adolescence

(D) cease functioning after adolescence

258. Which of the following contains regulatory centers of the respiratory circulatory systems?

(A) cetebellum

(B) thalamus

(C) medulla oblongata

(D) hypothalamus

259. Which of the following statement best summarizes the structural differences between DNA and RNA?

(A) DNA is a protein whereas RNA is a nucleic acid.

(B) DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar from RNA nucleotides

(C) RNA is a protein, whereas DNA is a nucleic acid

(D) DNA is converted into RNA information

260. During the process of translation, the information in:

(A) RNA is converted into DNA information

(B) mRNA is converted iito protein information

(C) proteins are converted into mRNA information

(D) DNA is converted into RNA information

261. Some viruses are surounded by a membranous envelope which originates from the:

(A) synthesis of lipids in the virus ans proteins in the host cell

(B) synthesis of proteins in the virus and lipids in the host cell

(C) synthesis of proteins and lipids inside the virus

(D) plasma membrane of the host cell

262. Various regions of the three embryonic germ layers in human embryo develop into organs and tissues in the adult. Which of the following is CORRECT?

(1) mesoderm - muscles and bones (2) ectoderm - eyes spinal cord
(3) endoderm - liver and ovary (4) mesoderm - brain and heart

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 2 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

263. Which of the following can be absorbed in the digestive track without any hydrolysis?

(A) glycogen

(B) surcrose

(C) polypeptide

(D) glucose

264. Which of the statement is true to the following diagram of the plasma membrane?

(A) The plasma membrane is composed of lipids (1) and proteins (2)

(B) Part (2) illustrates globular proteins.

(C) Part (3) plays a critical role in the cell recognition.

(D) Part (3) shows the bilayer of phospholipids.

265. During the process of transcription, the information in:

(A) DNA is converted into RNA information.

(B) RNA is converted into DNA information.

(C) protein is converted into RNA information.

(D) RNA is converted into protein information.

266. Which of the following is an anticodon?

(A) The part of a DNA molecule that codes for chain termination.

(B) A 3-nucleotide sequence of an mRNA molecule.

(C) A specific part of the tRNA molecule.

(D) A nucleotide triplet of an rRNA molecule.

267. Viruses can NOT infect:

(A) animals

(B) plants

(C) bacteria

(D) other viruses

268. A cell cycle consists of:

(A) interphase and mitosis

(B) G1, the S phase, and G2

(C) prophase, metaphse, anaphase, and telophase

(D) mitosis and meiosis

269. The primary role of a mitochondrion is:

(A) intracellular digestion

(B) ATP synthesis

(C) lip[id transport

(D) carbohydrate storage

270. In the cross AaBb x AaBb, what is the probability of producing the genotype aabb?

(A) 1/2

(B) 1/4

(C) 1/8

(D) 1/16

271. Vitamins

(A) provide energy

(B) are necessary for growth and development

(C) are needed in large amounts

(D) are all synthesized in the body

272. Which of the following enzymes act as oral cavity?

1. pepsin 2. trypsin 3. amylase 4. maltase

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 2 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

273. Which of the following is a function of the human kidney?

(1) production of blood cells (2) Excretion of glucose
(3) Excretion of toxins (4) Regulation of sodium in the blood

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 2 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

274. Which of the following organs is correctly paired with its function?

(1) Testes - produces testosterone, a male sex hormone
(2) prostate gland - produces progesterone, a male sex hormone
(3) seminal vesicles - maturation and storage of sperm
(4) Ovary - produces progesterone, a female sex hormone

(A) 1 ansd 2

(B) 1 and 4

(C) 2 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

275. A human cell that contains 22 autosomes and a X chromosome must be:

(1) a somatic cell of a female
(2) a somatic cell of a male
(3) a sperm cell
(4) an egg cell

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 4

(C) 2 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

276. The alimentary canal consists of the:

(A) Esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

(B) Stomach, small intestine, large intestine

(C) Oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

(D) Pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small

277. How is the air modified as it pases over the nasal mucosa?

(A) Particles are fitened out by mucus and coarse hairs

(B) Bacteria are destroyed by antibiotics secreted by seromucous glands

(C) Air is warmed by capilaries

(D) All of the above

278. The smooth muscle of digestive track pusches food forward in contractile waves called:

(A) Churning

(B) Peristaisis

(C) Deglutition

(D) Tenesmus

279. Water is conserved through the process of:

(A) Secretion

(B) Filtration

(C) Micturition

(D) Reabsorption

280. The metabolism and growth are overseen by:

(A) Parathyroid gland

(B) Thymus

(C) Adrenals

(D) Thyroid gland

281. What kind of cell work to consume bacteria and remove damaged tissue and debris?

(A) Neutrophils and macrophages

(B) Macrophages and mast cells

(C) Platelets and fibroblasts

(D) Mast cells and platelets

282. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

(A) The kidneys produce erythropoietin which stimulates the generation of red blood cells

(B) The kidneys produce calcitonin and regulate the calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body

(C) The kidneys produce renin which is involved in the regulation of arterial blood pressure

(D) The kidneys produce vitamine D3 and regulate the calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body

283. Blood does all of the following, except:

(A) Destroy invading pathogens

(B) Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

(C) Transport endocrine hormones

(D) Produce stem cells

284. In gas exchange (External respiration):

(A) Oxygen diffuses from alveoli into capillaries, carbon dioxide diffuses from capilaries into alveoli

(B) Carbon dioxide diffuses from alveoli into capilaries, oxygen diffuses from capillaries into alveoli

(C) Oxygen and carbon dioxide is carried from alveoli into the broncioles

(D) Oxygen is chemically transformed into carbon dioxide within the alveoli

285. The cell membrane is build up of:

(A) Two layers of psospholipid molecules and regularly arranged

(B) Sigle layer of phospholipid molecules and irregularly arranged proteins

(C) Two layers of phospholipid molecules and irregularly arranged proteins

(D) Two layers of glycolipid molecules and irregularly arranged proteins

286. The function of mucus in intestinal juices is to:

(A) Break down all components of chyme

(B) protect the intestinal lining

(C) Emulsify fats

(D) Disolve carbohydrates for absorption

287. What is not correct? The cell cycle:

(A) Is called the sequence of cell growth, preparation for division and the division to two daughter cells

(B) Is the same for all the animal cells

(C) Coincides with the division cycle when the cell, once formed, goes through preparation for new division

(D) Some specialized in a ceratin function calls do not divide

288. An individual who has two of the same allele is said to be:

(A) Homozygous

(B) Homologous

(C) heterogymous

(D) Diplozymous

289. Postembrionic development consists of

(A) Three stages: of growth and development, of adult individual, and of old age

(B) Three stages: of growth and development, of birth, andof adult individual

(C) Two stages: of growth and development and of adult individual

(D) Of four stages: of birth, of growth and development, of adult individual, and of old age

290. Why is surfactant in alveolar fluid important?

(A) It facilitates particle absorption

(B) It echanges oxygen and carbon dioxide

(C) It produces antibiotics that clean the alveolar surface

(D) It reduces surface tension so that alveoli can maintain their shape

291. All of the following bones are cranial bones, except:

A) Occipital

B) Maxilla

C) Sphenoid

D) Temporal

292. Essential elements of the living cells are:

(A) \[H_2O, CO_2, proteins, carbohydrates, lipids \]

(B) H, O, C,N, P and S

(C) Cu, Zn, Mo, Co, Mn, B, Se, F, I

(D) \[H, O, C, N, H_2O, CO_2\]

293. Which of the following is correct with regard to aneuploidy?

(A) Inversion

(B) 2n + 1

(C) All aneuploid individuals die before birth

(D) 4n

294. Blood serum

(A) Consists of the liquid portion of the blood

(B) Does not contain fibrinogen and other blood cloting substances

(C) Is a synonym of blood plasma

(D) Consists of pure water

295. A cell that is transformed by a virus

(A) Is always malignant

(B) Never produces progeny virus

(C) Exhibits normal growth patterns

D) Expresses one or more viral genes

296. Complete dominance is when:

(A) Characteristics are determined by the alleles of a single gene

(B) One allele in a heterozygous genotype completely s the effect of the other

(C) Characteristics are determined by the allelles of more than one gene

(D) Both the alleles of a gene express themeselves in the hetero

297. Meiosis

(A) Comprises two consecutive divisions leading to the reduction of the chromosome set to a haploid one

(B) Comprises two consecutive divisions leading to the reduction of the chromosome set to a diploid one

(C) Does not consist of the four conventional phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase

D) Is typical for the somatic cells

1. pepsin 2. trypsin 3. amylase 4. maltase

(1) a somatic cell of a female (2) a somatic cell of a male (3) a sperm cell (4) an egg cell

(1) a somatic cell of a female
(2) a somatic cell of a male
(3) a sperm cell
(4) an egg cell